Part-66 Module 10 Aviation Legislation Questions

25 free Part-66 Module 10 Aviation legislation practice questions with answers

Try each one, then open the answer. For the timed experience use the free exam-style paper or the printable version.

1. 1. Backups of maintenance data are kept to:

   1. A. allow staff to access data from home
   2. B. satisfy the record retention period alone
   3. C. allow recovery after loss, failure or attack
   Show answer

   C. allow recovery after loss, failure or attack

   Backups, kept separate and tested, let the organisation restore records after ransomware or hardware failure.

2. 2. How much actual relevant maintenance experience must a Part-145 organisation ensure its certifying and support staff have?

   1. A. At least 6 months in any consecutive 2-year period
   2. B. At least 12 months in any consecutive 3-year period
   3. C. At least 3 months in each calendar year
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   A. At least 6 months in any consecutive 2-year period

   145.A.35(c) requires all certifying and support staff to be involved in at least 6 months of actual relevant aircraft or component maintenance experience in any consecutive 2-year period.

3. 3. Which EASA certification specification applies to sailplanes and powered sailplanes?

   1. A. CS-23
   2. B. CS-27
   3. C. CS-22
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   C. CS-22

   CS-22 contains the airworthiness specifications for sailplanes and powered sailplanes. Certification specifications are issued by the Agency and form the certification basis for a type.

4. 4. Under Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014, what defines a commercial air transport (CAT) operation?

   1. A. Any flight that is operated to a published timetable
   2. B. Transporting passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration
   3. C. Any flight by an aircraft with more than nineteen passenger seats
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   B. Transporting passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration

   Article 2(g) of Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 defines a CAT operation as an aircraft operation to transport passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration. What counts is that the transport is paid for, not the size of the aircraft or whether there is a timetable.

5. 5. How must an incorrect entry in the aircraft continuing airworthiness record system be corrected?

   1. A. By covering it with correction fluid
   2. B. So that the original entry is still clearly shown
   3. C. By removing the page and rewriting it
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   B. So that the original entry is still clearly shown

   M.A.305(g) requires entries to be clear and accurate; when a correction is needed it must be made in a way that clearly shows the original entry. This keeps records traceable.

6. 6. (EASA) On which form must an application for a Part-66 aircraft maintenance licence, or a change to it, be made?

   1. A. EASA Form 1
   2. B. EASA Form 4
   3. C. EASA Form 19
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   C. EASA Form 19

   66.A.10(a) requires applications for a licence or change to a licence to be made on EASA Form 19 (Appendix V to Part-66) and submitted to the competent authority. EASA Form 1 is the authorised release certificate for components.

7. 7. What is the main output of ICAO that Contracting States are expected to implement in their national regulations?

   1. A. Implementing rules that apply directly in all States
   2. B. Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) published in Annexes
   3. C. Type certificates for aircraft designed in member States
   Show answer

   B. Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) published in Annexes

   ICAO develops Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs), contained in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention. They are not directly applicable law: each Contracting State transposes them into its own regulations (in the EU, largely through the Basic Regulation and its implementing rules).

8. 8. Which body develops the European Military Airworthiness Requirements (EMARs)?

   1. A. ICAO's Air Navigation Commission in Montreal
   2. B. The EDA Military Airworthiness Authorities Forum
   3. C. The EASA Management Board in Cologne
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   B. The EDA Military Airworthiness Authorities Forum

   The Military Airworthiness Authorities (MAWA) Forum of the European Defence Agency, created in 2008, harmonises military airworthiness requirements among participating Member States. It produced EMAR 21, EMAR M, EMAR 145, EMAR 147 and EMAR 66.

9. 9. Under ML.A.803, which conditions must a person meet to qualify as a pilot-owner?

   1. A. Hold a Part-66 licence and be registered as operator of the aircraft
   2. B. Hold a valid pilot licence for the type or class and own the aircraft as a sole or joint owner
   3. C. Hold any pilot licence and have flown the aircraft for at least 50 hours
   Show answer

   B. Hold a valid pilot licence for the type or class and own the aircraft as a sole or joint owner

   ML.A.803(a): the pilot-owner must hold a valid pilot licence (or equivalent) issued or validated by a Member State for the type or class rating, and own the aircraft as sole or joint owner (a natural person on the registration form, or a designated member of a non-profit recreational entity).

10. 10. Which power does Article 7a(3) give competent authorities for oversight of organisations?

    1. A. Setting the organisation's prices
    2. B. Performing unannounced inspections
    3. C. Appointing its accountable manager
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    B. Performing unannounced inspections

    Article 7a(3) empowers authorities to examine records, take copies, ask for oral explanations on-site, enter premises, perform audits, investigations, assessments and inspections including unannounced inspections, and take enforcement measures.

11. 11. Which organisations are covered by Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/1645 on information security (EASA)?

    1. A. Part-145 maintenance organisations only
    2. B. Part-147 maintenance training organisations
    3. C. Design and production organisations, aerodromes
    Show answer

    C. Design and production organisations, aerodromes

    Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/1645 applies Part-IS to Part 21 design and production organisations and to aerodrome operators, from 16 October 2025. Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203 covers the other organisations, including Part-145, Part-CAMO and Part-147.

12. 12. (EASA) What must be verified after completion of maintenance according to 145.A.48(c)(1)?

    1. A. The aircraft has been washed and the cabin has been cleaned
    2. B. The fuel quantity on board matches the planned departure fuel
    3. C. It is clear of tools and extraneous items, and all panels are refitted
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    C. It is clear of tools and extraneous items, and all panels are refitted

    145.A.48(c)(1) requires a general verification after maintenance to ensure the aircraft or component is clear of all tools, equipment and any extraneous parts or material, and that all removed access panels have been refitted.

13. 13. An aircraft has damage that does not allow a CofA to remain valid, and it must be flown to a base where it can be repaired. Which document would allow this flight?

    1. A. A permit to fly
    2. B. A noise certificate
    3. C. An EASA Form 1
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    A. A permit to fly

    Ferrying an aircraft to a place where maintenance or repair will be done is a typical purpose for a permit to fly under 21.A.701. The flight is carried out under approved flight conditions.

14. 14. How must the air operator certificate be carried on board during a CAT flight?

    1. A. As the original certificate issued by the authority
    2. B. As a certified true copy, with an English translation if needed
    3. C. It need not be carried if the ops manual is on board
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    B. As a certified true copy, with an English translation if needed

    CAT.GEN.MPA.180(a)(5) requires a certified true copy of the AOC, including an English translation when it was issued in another language. The relevant operations specifications must also be carried.

15. 15. How often must a Part-ML AMP be reviewed for effectiveness?

    1. A. At least annually
    2. B. At least every three years
    3. C. Only after an accident
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    A. At least annually

    ML.A.302(c)(9) requires the AMP to be reviewed at least annually, either with the airworthiness review by the person doing the review or by the managing CAMO or CAO. Deficiencies found lead to AMP amendment.

16. 16. (EASA) What is the maximum number of attempts allowed for each Part-66 examination in a 12-month period?

    1. A. Three
    2. B. Two
    3. C. Four
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    A. Three

    Appendix II 1.13: the maximum number of attempts for each examination is three in a 12-month period. The applicant must declare previous attempts in writing to the examining organisation or authority.

17. 17. Under Article 3 of Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014, Part-ML applies to aeroplanes that are not complex motor-powered aircraft up to which maximum take-off mass?

    1. A. 5 700 kg
    2. B. 2 730 kg
    3. C. 2 000 kg
    Show answer

    B. 2 730 kg

    Article 3(2) applies Part-ML to non-complex aeroplanes of 2 730 kg MTOM or less, rotorcraft of 1 200 kg MTOM or less certified for up to 4 occupants, and other ELA2 aircraft — unless listed in the AOC of a licensed air carrier, in which case Part-M applies.

18. 18. Under Article 2(4) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, when does a light aircraft type listed in Annex I points 1(e) to (i) come within the EU rules?

    1. A. When it is first flown in another Member State
    2. B. When more than ten are registered in one State
    3. C. When its designer applies for an EASA TC for serial production
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    C. When its designer applies for an EASA TC for serial production

    Article 2(4) brings such a type into scope when the design organisation has applied to the Agency for a type-certificate (or made a declaration), the type is intended for serial production, and its design was not previously approved under national law.

19. 19. An independent certifying staff member holds a Part-66 B1.2 licence with Group 3 rating and a 'composite-structure aeroplanes' limitation. The owner asks them to certify a structural repair on a composite aeroplane. What applies?

    1. A. The limitation only applies when working for a Part-145 organisation
    2. B. The limitation may be ignored if the owner accepts it in writing
    3. C. The limitation excludes that certification until removed under 66.A.50
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    C. The limitation excludes that certification until removed under 66.A.50

    66.A.50(a): limitations are exclusions from certification privileges and, for 66.A.45 limitations, affect the aircraft in its entirety. The limitation applies whether working independently or for an organisation, and is removed only by experience or a practical assessment (66.A.50(b)).

20. 20. A level 1 finding against a Part-145 organisation directly relates to an aircraft. Whom must the competent authority inform (EASA)?

    1. A. The licensing authority of the pilots
    2. B. The manufacturer of the aircraft type
    3. C. The authority of the aircraft's State of registry
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    C. The authority of the aircraft's State of registry

    145.B.350(d) requires the authority, if a level 1 finding directly relates to an aircraft, to inform the competent authority of the Member State in which the aircraft is registered so that it can act on that aircraft's airworthiness.

21. 21. In base maintenance of complex motor-powered aircraft, what is the role of category B1 and B2 support staff under 145.A.30(h)?

    1. A. To issue the CRS for the whole check on behalf of the organisation
    2. B. To ensure tasks and inspections meet the standard before the C release
    3. C. To approve deferral of customer work to a later check with the operator
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    B. To ensure tasks and inspections meet the standard before the C release

    145.A.30(h)(1)(i): B1 and B2 support staff ensure that all relevant tasks or inspections have been carried out to the required standard before the category C certifying staff issues the CRS. The C certifier assesses any work not done and agrees deferral with the operator.

22. 22. According to 21.A.31, which item forms part of the type design of a product?

    1. A. The minimum equipment list of the operator
    2. B. The owner's third-party insurance certificate
    3. C. The airworthiness limitations section of the ICA
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    C. The airworthiness limitations section of the ICA

    The type design consists of drawings and specifications defining the configuration and design features, information on materials, processes and manufacturing and assembly methods, and the approved airworthiness limitations section of the ICA. Maintenance must respect those limitations.

23. 23. In which annex of the Air Operations Regulation is the requirement for ETOPS approval found?

    1. A. Part-NCO (Annex VII)
    2. B. Part-ORO (Annex III)
    3. C. Part-SPA (Annex V)
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    C. Part-SPA (Annex V)

    Specific approvals, including ETOPS, low-visibility operations, RVSM and PBN, are in Part-SPA. Once granted, they appear in the operator's operations specifications.

24. 24. Part-T (Annex Va) applies to which aircraft?

    1. A. Aircraft flying on a permit to fly in the EU
    2. B. Third-country aircraft dry leased-in by EU air carriers
    3. C. Annex I aircraft maintained within the EU
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    B. Third-country aircraft dry leased-in by EU air carriers

    Part-T covers the continuing airworthiness of aircraft registered in a third country and dry leased-in by an EU licensed air carrier. T.A.201 makes the operator responsible, with maintenance programmes meeting the State of registry and ICAO Annex 6, and records kept not less than 24 months.

25. 25. (EASA) A B1.1 licence holder wants to add the B2 category. What does 66.A.25(f) require regarding basic knowledge?

    1. A. Re-pass every Part-66 module required for B2 from the beginning
    2. B. No examinations, because the B1.1 licence already covers B2 knowledge
    3. C. Pass examinations for the differences in modules and levels as detailed in Appendix IV
    Show answer

    C. Pass examinations for the differences in modules and levels as detailed in Appendix IV

    66.A.25(f) requires the holder applying for an additional category to complement by examination the knowledge appropriate to the related modules; Appendix IV details the modules required for each addition.

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