Part-66 Module 7 questions cover the practical heart of the licence: how to work safely, use tools, read drawings, make wiring and riveted joints, weigh an aircraft, inspect it after a lightning strike and release it with the right paperwork. Every category sits it, the paper is long and it is the one EASA module that still has essays. This page sets out the paper size for each category under EASA and UK CAA rules, walks through every sub-module with the things examiners like to test, and ends with a study plan you can follow.
Part-66 Prep is an independent study aid, not EASA, the UK CAA or a Part-147 organisation. Module 7 sits in the Part-66 modules guide alongside the other sixteen; the syllabus is Appendix I and the exam standard Appendix II to Part-66 in Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 for the EU and in the retained UK Part-66 for the UK.
Module 7 paper size by category: EASA and UK CAA
Module 7 is examined as three-option multiple choice, one correct answer, about 75 seconds a question and a 75% pass mark, plus two essays of 20 minutes each. The multiple-choice part and the essay part are marked separately.
| Category | EASA questions / time | UK CAA questions / time | Essays | Correct answers needed (EASA / UK) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | 76 / 95 min | 72 / 90 min (7A) | 2 | 57 / 54 |
| B1.1, B1.2, B1.3 | 80 / 100 min | 80 / 100 min (7A) | 2 | 60 / 60 |
| B2 | 60 / 75 min | 60 / 75 min (7A) | 2 | 45 / 45 |
| B2L | 60 / 75 min | 60 / 75 min (7A) | 2 | 45 / 45 |
| B3 | 80 / 100 min | 60 / 75 min (7B) | 2 | 60 / 45 |
The essays add 40 minutes in every case. Under EASA rules a paper with more than 90 minutes may be split into two partial exams, so the 100-minute B1 paper can be delivered in two parts at the same organisation, each passed at 75% on its own. Ask your exam centre how it runs Module 7.
Key fact: Under EASA rules Module 7 is the only module with essays since 12 June 2024. Under UK CAA rules you also write one essay in Module 9 and one in Module 10, so UK candidates meet essay writing earlier.
Which categories sit Module 7, and at what depth
Everyone sits Module 7, but the depth differs. The syllabus gives each topic a knowledge level: 1 is familiarisation, 2 is general knowledge you can apply, 3 is detailed knowledge you can combine, interpret and use to diagnose. B1 and B3 carry level 2 or 3 on almost every topic. B2 and B2L skip the mechanical sub-modules (riveting, pipes, springs, bearings, transmissions, control cables and sheet metal) but match B1 on EWIS and inspection basics. Category A is mostly level 1 and 2, apart from safety, workshop practices and tools, which are level 3 for every category.
Practise at your own category's size: A, B1.1, B1.2, B1.3, B2, B2L or B3. Each hub has the free quick practice, the free paper 1 and, with Pro, papers 2 to 10.
What changed in Module 7 in 2024 (EASA only)
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/989 replaced the EU syllabus and exam standard from 12 June 2024. For Module 7 that meant:
- 7.4 Avionic general test equipment and 7.15 Welding, brazing, soldering and bonding became reserved, so they are no longer examined under EASA rules.
- Additive manufacturing (3-D printing) was added under material handling as 7.14.3, at level 1 for every category.
- A new 7.21 Documentation and communication sub-module covers work reports, troubleshooting reports and shift handover.
- The single EASA Module 7 replaced 7A and 7B, with category columns for depth, and the category A paper is 76 questions.
The UK kept Module 7A and 7B with the older list, so UK candidates can still be asked about test equipment and welding, soldering and bonding, and won't see additive manufacturing as a separate topic. The EASA vs UK CAA guide covers the wider split. If your textbook pre-dates 2024, check its contents against the syllabus for your system.
Module 7 sub-modules: what each covers and what examiners test
The headings below follow the EASA numbering. Bold terms are the ones that turn up again and again in Module 7 questions.
7.1 Safety precautions and 7.2 workshop practices
Level 3 for everyone. Expect questions on electrical isolation (collar and tag circuit breakers, capacitors can hold charge), oxygen safety (oil or grease with high-pressure oxygen can ignite, open valves slowly), hydraulic fluid and chemical hazards, fuel tank entry (purge, test the atmosphere, permit, attendant outside, ignition control), ballistic recovery systems, and fire classes with the right extinguisher. Typical traps: water on an electrical or metal fire, or dry powder chosen where its corrosive residue would damage an engine.
Workshop practices cover tool control and FOD prevention, approved consumables and shelf life, dimensions, allowances and tolerances, workmanship standards and calibration traceable to national standards. A favourite question asks what happens to work done with a tool later found out of calibration: it must be assessed. Our free Module 7 safety and workshop note covers both.
7.3 Tools
Also level 3 for everyone. Hand tools (Reed and Prince versus Phillips, hacksaw blade teeth forward, aviation snip colours), power tools, precision measuring (vernier calliper, micrometer, dial test indicator, feeler gauges), lubrication equipment and general electrical test equipment. Two calculations come up often. Reading a micrometer or vernier, and torque wrench extension correction: with an in-line extension the setting is the required torque times L divided by (L + E), so the wrench is set lower. Here is a worked example of our own: 60 N·m required, a 300 mm wrench and a 60 mm crowfoot in line gives 60 × 300 / 360 = 50 N·m. The trap answer is 72 N·m, the ratio inverted.
7.5 Drawings, diagrams and standards, and 7.6 fits and clearances
Level 2 for B1, B2 and B3, level 1 for A. Know the drawing types (detail, assembly, installation, block, schematic, wiring), first-angle versus third-angle projection, line types (dashed for hidden detail, chain for centre lines), the title block, ATA chapter numbering, and standards such as AN, MS and NAS. Fits and clearances covers clearance, transition and interference fits, ISO hole-basis notation such as H7, schedules of fits and service limits, and checking shafts for bow, twist and run-out.
7.7 Electrical wiring interconnection system (EWIS)
Level 3 for B1, B2, B2L and B3, level 1 for A, and a common essay subject. Continuity, insulation resistance and bonding tests (and which instrument does which), crimping with calibrated full-cycle ratchet tools and go/no-go gauges, connector pin removal and insertion, coaxial cable bend radius, wire inspection criteria, protection by looming, clamping, separation and sleeving, HIRF protection, soldering and cleanliness. Classic traps: heat-shrink with a hot-air gun, never a flame; insulation testers use high voltage, so sensitive equipment comes off first. Drill it with the EWIS topic practice and the EWIS note.
7.8 Riveting
Level 2 for B1 and B3, level 1 for A, not examined for B2. Learn the rules of thumb: diameter about three times the thickest sheet, edge distance at least 2D, pitch at least 3D, rivet length grip plus 1.5D, shop head about 1.5D wide and 0.5D high. Also countersinking versus dimpling (dimple thin sheet, hot-dimple 7075), rivet removal through the manufactured head, and defects such as "smoking" rivets. The riveting drill is the quickest way to make the numbers automatic.
7.9 to 7.13 Pipes and hoses, springs, bearings, transmissions and control cables
Level 2 for B1 and B3, level 1 for A, not for B2. These are the practices side of the hardware you met in Module 6: single and double flares (nut and sleeve on before flaring), hose slack and lay lines, pressure testing, spring free length and permanent set, bearing cleaning (never spin a dry bearing with air), brinelling against false brinelling, gear backlash, chain stretch, cable swaging with go/no-go gauges, finding broken wires with a cloth and tension correction for temperature. If Module 6 is behind you, the Module 6 questions page is a good refresher.
7.14 Material handling
Sheet metal (level 2 for B1 and B3): marking out without scribing aluminium, bend allowance, setback and flat-pattern length. Composites (level 2 for B1 and B3): surface preparation, cure cycles, storing pre-pregs frozen and logging out-time. Additive manufacturing (level 1 for everyone, EASA only): the main processes, anisotropy, porosity and the inspection methods.
7.16 Weight and balance
Level 2 for B1, B2 and B3 on centre-of-gravity calculation; aircraft weighing itself is B1 and B3 only. Know datum, arm, moment, basic empty weight and %MAC, and practise CG after an equipment change, the weight-shift formula and a weighing calculation with tare subtracted first. These are marks you can bank with practice.
7.17 Aircraft handling and storage
Level 2 for everyone: towing (steering bypass, gear pins in, brake operator, wing walkers), taxiing, jacking evenly with safety collars followed down, chocking and mooring, storage levels, refuelling and defuelling (bond before you open), de-icing with Type I and anti-icing with Type II or IV fluids, ground power, hydraulic and pneumatic supplies and the effects of weather.
7.18 Disassembly, inspection, repair and assembly
Defect types and visual inspection, and corrosion removal and protection, are level 3 for B1, B2 and B3. The structural repair manual and ageing aircraft programmes are B1 and B3 only. NDT is level 2 for B1 and B3 and level 1 for B2: penetrant finds only surface-breaking defects, magnetic particle needs a ferromagnetic part, eddy current a conductive one, and ultrasonic and radiography find internal defects. Troubleshooting (gather information, half-split, verify) is level 2 for B1 and B2. The classic trap: steel wool on aluminium.
7.19 Abnormal events
Lightning strike and HIRF inspections are level 2 for everyone; heavy landing and turbulence inspections are level 2 for A, B1 and B3. Know where lightning attaches and exits, why bonding straps and hinge bearings are checked, why a compass swing may follow, and the phased inspection after a heavy landing. This is one of the most common essay areas.
7.20 Maintenance procedures and 7.21 documentation and communication
Level 2 for B1, B2 and B3, level 1 for A. Maintenance planning and the maintenance programme, modifications needing approved data, mandatory airworthiness directives, stores procedures (approved sources, EASA Form 1 or UK CAA Form 1, quarantine), certification and the certificate of release to service (CRS), quality control against quality assurance, and life-limited parts traced back to birth. Under EASA rules, 7.21 adds clear, comprehensive and concise work reports and a formal shift handover, which links straight to Module 9 human factors.
Exam tip: Numerical distractors in Part-66 papers come from procedural errors, not random numbers. In Module 7 that means an inverted torque ratio, a CG worked with tare left in, or a bend allowance using the full thickness. If your answer appears as an option, check you didn't make the common mistake on the way.
Module 7 essays: how they are marked
Each essay has a model answer broken into key points. You pass with 75% of the required key points and no significant error. Examiners want a clear procedure in a logical order, not everything you know about a system. A structure that collects most key points:
- Preparation: current approved data, calibrated tools, approved parts and consumables, and safety precautions.
- Procedure: the steps in order, with the reason for any critical step.
- Inspection and testing: what you check, the limits from the manual, functional tests, independent inspection where required.
- Close-up and records: tool check, restoring the aircraft, task cards, technical log, CRS and any occurrence report.
Plan about 3 minutes, write for about 15 and check for 2. Never invent a safety-critical value: write "to the torque specified in the AMM" rather than guessing. Our Module 7 essay writing note has a worked outline, and the Part-66 essay questions guide covers marking, timing and practice prompts in depth. The site does not mark essays; the app has an essay coach with original prompts and a key-point checklist.
Module 7 question banks, mock tests and PDFs
Our Module 7 bank has 884 original three-option questions (essays excluded), spread over the sub-modules the way the AMC to Appendix II weights them. Each paper is built for your category and system: choose EASA or UK CAA rules on the start screen and the paper takes that size and time. Calculation questions, such as torque correction and CG, get new numbers from the generator, so you learn the method rather than the answer.
- Free: B1.1 paper 1, B2 paper 1 and category A paper 1 at full length, plus 20-question quick practice with an explanation after each answer.
- Printable: the Module 7 printable sheet gives 50 questions with an answer key you can print or save as a PDF.
- Pro: papers 2 to 10, sub-module drills and all the Module 7 notes for every category, from £6.99 a week. See pricing.
These are exam-style papers written for the app, not past papers. Neither EASA nor the CAA publishes past papers, and exam questions must be kept secure. Twenty-five sample questions from our bank, with answers, are below this article.
Your study plan
- Read the free safety and workshop practices note, then do the Module 7 quick practice for your category every day until you score above 80%.
- Work through the sub-modules in blocks: safety, tools and EWIS first (the level 3 topics), then the mechanical practices, then handling, inspection, abnormal events and procedures.
- Learn the numbers by drilling them: rivet rules, torque correction, micrometer readings and CG calculations.
- Sit paper 1 against the clock at your category's size and review your wrong answers by sub-module.
- From week two, write one 20-minute essay by hand each week and score it against a key-point checklist.
- Book the exam once you reach 85% on three different papers and can write two essays in 40 minutes. If you haven't sat an exam yet, the free B1.1 diagnostic shows where Module 7 sits against your other modules.
25 free Part-66 Module 7 Maintenance practices practice questions with answers
Try each one, then open the answer. For the timed experience use the free exam-style paper or the printable version.
1. Before an engine ground run, the area behind the aircraft is checked mainly because of:
- A. the risk of the aircraft rolling back
- B. noise damage to hangar windows
- C. the jet blast or propwash hazard
Show answer
C. the jet blast or propwash hazard
Exhaust and propeller blast can blow people, vehicles and loose objects over. The intake area in front and the blast area behind must both be clear before a run.
2. Protective sleeving or conduit is added to a wire bundle where it:
- A. runs in a clean, protected area
- B. must be easily identifiable
- C. passes near sharp edges or abrasion risks
Show answer
C. passes near sharp edges or abrasion risks
Sleeving, conduit and grommets protect wiring from chafing at sharp edges, holes in structure and areas of abrasion or heat.
3. A roller chain is checked for stretch (wear) by:
- A. measuring a set number of links
- B. weighing the chain on scales
- C. checking the chain's colour
Show answer
A. measuring a set number of links
Chain wear shows as elongation. A set number of pitches is measured under light tension and compared with the maximum allowed length.
4. Removing an item located aft of the CG will move the CG:
- A. aft
- B. nowhere
- C. forward
Show answer
C. forward
Taking weight off behind the CG reduces the aft moment, so the CG moves forward.
5. A measured free length shorter than the minimum in the maintenance data indicates that the spring:
- A. has been correctly preloaded for its installation
- B. has taken a permanent set and should be rejected
- C. is new and has not yet settled to its free length
Show answer
B. has taken a permanent set and should be rejected
Loss of free length means the material has yielded or relaxed; the spring will give less force at its installed length.
6. A borescope is used on turbine engines to:
- A. inspect internal parts without disassembly
- B. measure blade tip clearances in flight
- C. detect internal cracks in shafts
Show answer
A. inspect internal parts without disassembly
Borescopes (rigid, flexible or video) are inserted through ports to inspect blades, vanes and combustors for damage, burning, cracks and FOD without taking the engine apart.
7. Defects reported by the crew and their rectification are recorded in the:
- A. illustrated parts catalogue
- B. flight crew licence
- C. aircraft technical log
Show answer
C. aircraft technical log
M.A.306: the technical log records defects, deferred defects, rectification and the CRS, and flight information needed for continuing airworthiness.
8. A dimension on a drawing is shown as 50 +0.05 / -0.00 mm. This is:
- A. a bilateral tolerance
- B. a unilateral tolerance
- C. a basic dimension without tolerance
Show answer
B. a unilateral tolerance
A unilateral tolerance allows variation in one direction only from the basic size (here 50.00 to 50.05 mm). A bilateral tolerance allows variation both ways, such as ±0.05.
9. Scribing lines with a steel scriber on aluminium sheet within the finished part should be avoided because:
- A. scratches act as stress raisers
- B. they make the metal magnetic
- C. they increase the bend allowance
Show answer
A. scratches act as stress raisers
Scratches from scribers can start fatigue cracks. Layout lines on the part are marked with a soft pencil or fine marker; scribers are only used on lines that will be cut away.
10. Cleco fasteners are used during riveting to:
- A. hold the sheets aligned for riveting
- B. replace rivets permanently in a joint
- C. measure the size of rivet holes
Show answer
A. hold the sheets aligned for riveting
Clecos are spring-loaded temporary fasteners inserted in drilled holes to hold parts tightly together and in alignment while other holes are drilled and rivets installed.
11. Limits for twist in a part such as a propeller blade or rod are checked by:
- A. weighing the part on precision scales
- B. measuring angles at set stations
- C. tapping it and listening to the tone
Show answer
B. measuring angles at set stations
Twist is the angular change along a part. It is checked by measuring angles at set stations (with protractors or fixtures) and comparing with the limits in the manual.
12. A bearing is to be heated to aid fitting on a shaft. The correct method is:
- A. in an oil bath or oven, temperature controlled
- B. with an oxy-acetylene torch on the race
- C. in an open fire until it glows
Show answer
A. in an oil bath or oven, temperature controlled
Controlled heating (oil bath, oven or induction heater) expands the inner race uniformly without exceeding the safe temperature. Flames cause local overheating and loss of hardness.
13. Critical fatigue areas on control cables are where the cable:
- A. passes over pulleys or through fairleads
- B. runs straight through open bays
- C. is painted for identification purposes
Show answer
A. passes over pulleys or through fairleads
Areas where the cable bends or rubs (pulleys, sleeves, fairleads) and within about 1 ft of a swaged fitting are prone to wire breakage and are inspected closely.
14. In a dimension given as 25.00 ± 0.05 mm, the tolerance is:
- A. 0.10 mm total
- B. 0.05 mm total
- C. 25.05 mm
Show answer
A. 0.10 mm total
The part may be between 24.95 mm and 25.05 mm, so the total tolerance (difference between limits) is 0.10 mm. ± 0.05 mm is the bilateral deviation.
15. In lightning zoning, areas such as the nose, wing tips and engine nacelles, where a strike first attaches, are:
- A. zone 1 (initial attachment)
- B. zone 2 (swept stroke)
- C. zone 3 (conduction only)
Show answer
A. zone 1 (initial attachment)
Zone 1 surfaces are likely to receive the initial attachment; zone 2 surfaces are swept by the channel as the aircraft moves; zone 3 carries conducted current only. Inspection focuses on zones 1 and 2.
16. Which three elements must all be present for a fire to occur?
- A. Fuel, heat and oxygen
- B. Fuel, water and nitrogen
- C. Heat, pressure and humidity
Show answer
A. Fuel, heat and oxygen
Fire needs fuel, heat and oxygen (the fire triangle). Extinguishing agents work by removing one of them: cooling removes heat, smothering removes oxygen, and removing the fuel starves the fire.
17. A time domain reflectometer (TDR) is used on aircraft wiring to:
- A. measure the insulation resistance
- B. measure the supply frequency
- C. locate opens, shorts and chafes
Show answer
C. locate opens, shorts and chafes
A TDR sends a pulse down the cable and times the reflections from impedance changes. This shows the distance to faults such as opens, shorts or chafed insulation, which is useful for coaxial and long wire runs.
18. Bead-and-clamp hose connections on rigid tubes are suitable for:
- A. low- or medium-pressure systems such as coolant
- B. high-pressure hydraulic systems up to 3000 psi
- C. high-pressure oxygen supply lines from cylinders
Show answer
A. low- or medium-pressure systems such as coolant
The beaded fitting with a hose section and clamps is used only in low- or medium-pressure systems. Flared, flareless or permanent fittings are used for high-pressure systems.
19. When work cards are held in an electronic database, Part-145 requires a backup database that is updated within:
- A. 7 days of an entry in the main database
- B. 24 hours of an entry in the main database
- C. the next scheduled maintenance check
Show answer
B. 24 hours of an entry in the main database
145.A.45(e): computer-generated work cards may be held electronically if the database is protected against unauthorised alteration and a backup database is updated within 24 hours after each entry in the main database.
20. During over-wing refuelling, when should the nozzle be bonded to the aircraft?
- A. Before the fuel tank cap is opened
- B. After fuel has started to flow into the tank
- C. Only if fuel is spilled
Show answer
A. Before the fuel tank cap is opened
The sequence is: ground the aircraft and truck, bond truck to aircraft, then bond the nozzle to the aircraft before opening the tank, so that any static potential is equalised before fuel vapour is present.
21. A wire bundle routed close to a moving control rod must have:
- A. slack so it can touch the rod
- B. adequate clearance and secure clamping
- C. no clamps so it can move freely
Show answer
B. adequate clearance and secure clamping
Bundles are clamped to keep clearance from moving parts through their full travel; contact would chafe the wiring or jam the control.
22. Torque tubes in a flight control or flap drive system are inspected for:
- A. their electrical resistance only, using a bonding meter
- B. internal hydraulic fluid leaks
- C. twist, corrosion, cracks and joint wear
Show answer
C. twist, corrosion, cracks and joint wear
Torque tubes transmit rotary motion; they are checked for straightness and twist, corrosion, cracks, loose rivets or pins and play in universal joints and support bearings.
23. After equipment is installed in an aircraft, the weight and balance record is updated using:
- A. only the item's purchase price
- B. its mass and arm to recompute empty CG
- C. a new flight test of the aircraft
Show answer
B. its mass and arm to recompute empty CG
The change in mass and moment (mass x arm) is added to (or subtracted from) the basic empty mass and moment, and a new empty CG is calculated and recorded.
24. The free length and load test of a spring are typically recorded on:
- A. the aircraft technical log, as a defect entry
- B. the workshop worksheet or component record for that unit
- C. the tool calibration record for the tester
Show answer
B. the workshop worksheet or component record for that unit
Component overhaul work, including spring checks, is recorded on the worksheet and supports the release certificate (EASA Form 1).
25. After reassembly of a system, the final step before release is to:
- A. paint over all of the fasteners
- B. carry out the functional or leak test
- C. remove the safety locking devices
Show answer
B. carry out the functional or leak test
Operational, functional and leak tests confirm the system works correctly after reassembly. Locking is checked, not removed.
Frequently asked questions
+How many questions are in Part-66 Module 7?
Under EASA rules the paper is 80 multiple-choice questions in 100 minutes for B1 and B3, 76 in 95 minutes for category A and 60 in 75 minutes for B2 and B2L. UK CAA papers are the same except category A (72 questions) and B3, which sits Module 7B with 60 questions. Every category also writes two essays.
+How many essays are in the Module 7 exam?
Two, under both EASA and UK CAA rules. Each essay is allowed 20 minutes, so the essays add 40 minutes to the multiple-choice time. Under EASA rules Module 7 is now the only module with essays.
+What is the pass mark for Module 7 essays?
You need 75% of the key points in the examiner's model answer, with no significant error on any required key point. A dangerous or badly wrong statement can fail an essay even when most key points are covered.
+Is Module 7 the hardest Part-66 module?
There is no official ranking, but many candidates name it because it is long, practical and the only EASA module with essays. People with hangar experience usually find the content familiar; the work is in the numbers (rivet rules, torque correction, weight and balance) and the essay technique.
+What is the difference between Module 7A and 7B?
The split exists only under UK CAA rules. Module 7A is sat by categories A, B1 and B2; Module 7B is the shorter B3 version with 60 questions plus two essays. EASA merged them into one Module 7 in 2024, with the depth set per category.
+Can I retake only the Module 7 essays?
Yes. If you pass the multiple-choice part and fail the essays, or the other way round, only the failed part is retaken. The 90-day wait (or 30 days after tailored Part-147 retraining) and the attempt limits still apply.
+How long should I study for Module 7?
No authority publishes a figure and it depends on your background. Candidates with hangar experience often need a few weeks of revision plus essay practice; career changers usually need longer because the topics are practical. Book when you score 85% on three different papers and can write two essays in 40 minutes.
+What changed in Module 7 in 2024?
Regulation (EU) 2023/989, applied from 12 June 2024, removed avionic test equipment (7.4) and welding, brazing, soldering and bonding (7.15) from the EASA syllabus, added additive manufacturing and a new sub-module on documentation and communication, and set the category A paper at 76 questions. The UK did not adopt these changes.
Study offline on your phone too
The Part-66 Prep: EASA & UK CAA app has the same questions plus a module board, essay coach, units drill and an attempt tracker for resit dates.
Keep reading
- Part-66 Modules 1 to 17: The Complete GuideAll 17 Part-66 modules explained: what each covers, which categories sit it, EASA and UK CAA question counts and times, and free practice papers.
- Part-66 Essay Questions: How They Are Marked and How to PassPart-66 essay questions explained: which modules have essays under EASA and UK rules, how key-point marking works, a 20-minute method and typical subjects.
- Part-66 Module 6 Materials and Hardware QuestionsPart-66 Module 6 materials and hardware questions with a free timed paper: EASA vs UK paper sizes, all 11 sub-modules, corrosion and fastener traps.
- Part-66 Module 9 Human Factors Questions and Practice PaperPart-66 Module 9 human factors questions and a free timed paper: EASA and UK CAA sizes, the essay rule, every sub-module and the Dirty Dozen explained.
- The Part-66 B1 Licence: Modules, Exams and ExperienceThe Part-66 B1 licence explained: B1.1, B1.2 and B1.3 privileges, modules and paper sizes under EASA and UK CAA rules, experience, costs and timescales.
- Part-66 Exam Format: Questions, Timing and the 75% Pass MarkHow many questions are in Part-66 exams, how long you get, the 75% pass mark, three-option format, partial exams and calculators, under EASA and UK rules.