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Module 10 Aviation legislation: 50 practice questions

Real EASA paper: Category A 32 Q / 40 min · B1.1 44 Q / 55 min · B1.2 44 Q / 55 min · B1.3 44 Q / 55 min · B2 44 Q / 55 min · B2L 44 Q / 55 min · B3 44 Q / 55 min. Three options, 75% to pass. Answer key on the last page. From part66exam.com · independent study aid, not an official exam or a past paper.

  1. 1. Backups of maintenance data are kept to:

    1. A. allow staff to access data from home
    2. B. satisfy the record retention period alone
    3. C. allow recovery after loss, failure or attack

  2. 2. How much actual relevant maintenance experience must a Part-145 organisation ensure its certifying and support staff have?

    1. A. At least 6 months in any consecutive 2-year period
    2. B. At least 12 months in any consecutive 3-year period
    3. C. At least 3 months in each calendar year

  3. 3. Which EASA certification specification applies to sailplanes and powered sailplanes?

    1. A. CS-23
    2. B. CS-27
    3. C. CS-22

  4. 4. Under Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014, what defines a commercial air transport (CAT) operation?

    1. A. Any flight that is operated to a published timetable
    2. B. Transporting passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration
    3. C. Any flight by an aircraft with more than nineteen passenger seats

  5. 5. How must an incorrect entry in the aircraft continuing airworthiness record system be corrected?

    1. A. By covering it with correction fluid
    2. B. So that the original entry is still clearly shown
    3. C. By removing the page and rewriting it

  6. 6. (EASA) On which form must an application for a Part-66 aircraft maintenance licence, or a change to it, be made?

    1. A. EASA Form 1
    2. B. EASA Form 4
    3. C. EASA Form 19

  7. 7. What is the main output of ICAO that Contracting States are expected to implement in their national regulations?

    1. A. Implementing rules that apply directly in all States
    2. B. Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) published in Annexes
    3. C. Type certificates for aircraft designed in member States

  8. 8. Which body develops the European Military Airworthiness Requirements (EMARs)?

    1. A. ICAO's Air Navigation Commission in Montreal
    2. B. The EDA Military Airworthiness Authorities Forum
    3. C. The EASA Management Board in Cologne

  9. 9. Under ML.A.803, which conditions must a person meet to qualify as a pilot-owner?

    1. A. Hold a Part-66 licence and be registered as operator of the aircraft
    2. B. Hold a valid pilot licence for the type or class and own the aircraft as a sole or joint owner
    3. C. Hold any pilot licence and have flown the aircraft for at least 50 hours

  10. 10. Which power does Article 7a(3) give competent authorities for oversight of organisations?

    1. A. Setting the organisation's prices
    2. B. Performing unannounced inspections
    3. C. Appointing its accountable manager

  11. 11. Which organisations are covered by Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/1645 on information security (EASA)?

    1. A. Part-145 maintenance organisations only
    2. B. Part-147 maintenance training organisations
    3. C. Design and production organisations, aerodromes

  12. 12. (EASA) What must be verified after completion of maintenance according to 145.A.48(c)(1)?

    1. A. The aircraft has been washed and the cabin has been cleaned
    2. B. The fuel quantity on board matches the planned departure fuel
    3. C. It is clear of tools and extraneous items, and all panels are refitted

  13. 13. An aircraft has damage that does not allow a CofA to remain valid, and it must be flown to a base where it can be repaired. Which document would allow this flight?

    1. A. A permit to fly
    2. B. A noise certificate
    3. C. An EASA Form 1

  14. 14. How must the air operator certificate be carried on board during a CAT flight?

    1. A. As the original certificate issued by the authority
    2. B. As a certified true copy, with an English translation if needed
    3. C. It need not be carried if the ops manual is on board

  15. 15. How often must a Part-ML AMP be reviewed for effectiveness?

    1. A. At least annually
    2. B. At least every three years
    3. C. Only after an accident

  16. 16. (EASA) What is the maximum number of attempts allowed for each Part-66 examination in a 12-month period?

    1. A. Three
    2. B. Two
    3. C. Four

  17. 17. Under Article 3 of Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014, Part-ML applies to aeroplanes that are not complex motor-powered aircraft up to which maximum take-off mass?

    1. A. 5 700 kg
    2. B. 2 730 kg
    3. C. 2 000 kg

  18. 18. Under Article 2(4) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, when does a light aircraft type listed in Annex I points 1(e) to (i) come within the EU rules?

    1. A. When it is first flown in another Member State
    2. B. When more than ten are registered in one State
    3. C. When its designer applies for an EASA TC for serial production

  19. 19. An independent certifying staff member holds a Part-66 B1.2 licence with Group 3 rating and a 'composite-structure aeroplanes' limitation. The owner asks them to certify a structural repair on a composite aeroplane. What applies?

    1. A. The limitation only applies when working for a Part-145 organisation
    2. B. The limitation may be ignored if the owner accepts it in writing
    3. C. The limitation excludes that certification until removed under 66.A.50

  20. 20. A level 1 finding against a Part-145 organisation directly relates to an aircraft. Whom must the competent authority inform (EASA)?

    1. A. The licensing authority of the pilots
    2. B. The manufacturer of the aircraft type
    3. C. The authority of the aircraft's State of registry

  21. 21. In base maintenance of complex motor-powered aircraft, what is the role of category B1 and B2 support staff under 145.A.30(h)?

    1. A. To issue the CRS for the whole check on behalf of the organisation
    2. B. To ensure tasks and inspections meet the standard before the C release
    3. C. To approve deferral of customer work to a later check with the operator

  22. 22. According to 21.A.31, which item forms part of the type design of a product?

    1. A. The minimum equipment list of the operator
    2. B. The owner's third-party insurance certificate
    3. C. The airworthiness limitations section of the ICA

  23. 23. In which annex of the Air Operations Regulation is the requirement for ETOPS approval found?

    1. A. Part-NCO (Annex VII)
    2. B. Part-ORO (Annex III)
    3. C. Part-SPA (Annex V)

  24. 24. Part-T (Annex Va) applies to which aircraft?

    1. A. Aircraft flying on a permit to fly in the EU
    2. B. Third-country aircraft dry leased-in by EU air carriers
    3. C. Annex I aircraft maintained within the EU

  25. 25. (EASA) A B1.1 licence holder wants to add the B2 category. What does 66.A.25(f) require regarding basic knowledge?

    1. A. Re-pass every Part-66 module required for B2 from the beginning
    2. B. No examinations, because the B1.1 licence already covers B2 knowledge
    3. C. Pass examinations for the differences in modules and levels as detailed in Appendix IV

  26. 26. Which annex of Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 contains the requirements for maintenance training organisations?

    1. A. Annex IV (Part-147)
    2. B. Annex III (Part-66)
    3. C. Annex Vc (Part-CAMO)

  27. 27. An aircraft meets Annex I criteria but was issued a certificate under Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. Which rules apply?

    1. A. The EU rules still apply to it
    2. B. Only the national rules of its State
    3. C. No airworthiness rules at all

  28. 28. After carrying out pilot-owner maintenance on a Part-M aircraft managed by a CAMO, within what time must the pilot-owner inform the CAMO?

    1. A. Not later than 7 days
    2. B. Not later than 72 hours
    3. C. Not later than 30 days

  29. 29. Under 145.B.305(c) (EASA), what is the normal maximum oversight planning cycle for a Part-145 organisation?

    1. A. 24 months
    2. B. 60 months
    3. C. 12 months

  30. 30. Within what time must certifying staff produce their certification authorisation to an authorised person?

    1. A. 24 hours
    2. B. 7 days
    3. C. 72 hours

  31. 31. What is the Part 21 approval for organisations that design products, parts or changes and repairs?

    1. A. Design Organisation Approval (Subpart J)
    2. B. Part-CAMO approval
    3. C. Production Organisation Approval (Subpart G)

  32. 32. Private individuals share the direct costs of a flight in a non-complex aeroplane equally among the four occupants, pilot included. Under Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 this is:

    1. A. A commercial air transport operation
    2. B. A limited operation, not considered CAT
    3. C. A commercial specialised operation

  33. 33. Part-ML applies to other-than-complex aeroplanes with a maximum take-off mass of:

    1. A. 1 200 kg or less
    2. B. 2 730 kg or less
    3. C. 5 700 kg or less

  34. 34. To which aircraft is the category B2 licence applicable?

    1. A. Aeroplanes only
    2. B. All aircraft
    3. C. Aircraft other than Group 1

  35. 35. (EASA) From what date did Regulation (EU) 2023/989, which introduced the revised Part-66 basic knowledge syllabus, generally apply?

    1. A. 1 January 2023
    2. B. 24 March 2020
    3. C. 12 June 2024

  36. 36. Under Part-M Appendix VIII, which tools are the only calibrated tools a pilot-owner may use for pilot-owner maintenance?

    1. A. A multimeter and a pressure gauge
    2. B. A torque wrench and a crimping tool
    3. C. A borescope and a compression tester

  37. 37. What does 145.A.40(b) require for tools and test equipment?

    1. A. Replacement of all tools every two years regardless of their condition
    2. B. Calibration only when a tool is found to be damaged or dropped
    3. C. Calibration to a recognised standard with records and traceability kept

  38. 38. Which EASA form is used for a standard certificate of airworthiness?

    1. A. EASA Form 24
    2. B. EASA Form 45
    3. C. EASA Form 25

  39. 39. A day-VFR CAT flight with an other-than-complex aircraft takes off and lands at the same aerodrome within 24 hours. Which document may be kept at the aerodrome instead of on board?

    1. A. The aircraft technical log
    2. B. The original certificate of registration
    3. C. The original certificate of airworthiness

  40. 40. How is continuing airworthiness ensured for an aircraft flying on a permit to fly?

    1. A. By Part-T requirements
    2. B. By a full Part-M airworthiness review every 6 months
    3. C. Through the arrangements defined in the permit to fly

  41. 41. (EASA) Within what period before the licence application must the basic knowledge examinations normally have been passed?

    1. A. 5 years
    2. B. 10 years
    3. C. 2 years

  42. 42. Which EU regulation governs the reporting, analysis and follow-up of occurrences in civil aviation?

    1. A. Regulation (EU) No 748/2012
    2. B. Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011
    3. C. Regulation (EU) No 376/2014

  43. 43. An independent certifying staff member holds an ML.A.904 airworthiness review authorisation. Under what condition does it remain valid for its 5-year duration?

    1. A. The holder performs at least 1 airworthiness review every 12 months
    2. B. The holder performs at least 6 airworthiness reviews every 2 years
    3. C. The holder attends an authority seminar every 24 months

  44. 44. Within what time must a Part-145 organisation report the issue of a one-off certification authorisation under 145.A.30(j) to the competent authority?

    1. A. Within 72 hours
    2. B. Within seven days
    3. C. Within 30 days

  45. 45. Which Part 21 subpart deals with type-certificates and restricted type-certificates?

    1. A. Subpart B
    2. B. Subpart H
    3. C. Subpart G

  46. 46. RVSM approval allows an aircraft to be flown with 1 000 ft vertical separation in which band of flight levels?

    1. A. FL 180 to FL 280 inclusive
    2. B. FL 410 to FL 600 inclusive
    3. C. FL 290 to FL 410 inclusive

  47. 47. For complex motor-powered aircraft, what must a CAMO establish regarding non-mandatory modifications and inspections?

    1. A. A rule that they are always embodied at once
    2. B. A procedure to assess them and decide on them
    3. C. A rule that they are never embodied at all

  48. 48. (EASA) What do the category C licence privileges permit?

    1. A. Issue of a CRS following base maintenance of the aircraft in its entirety
    2. B. Issue of a CRS for minor line maintenance on any aircraft type
    3. C. Issue of a CRS for avionics tasks within the endorsed system ratings

  49. 49. Under Article 3 of Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014, Part-ML applies to rotorcraft of 1 200 kg MTOM or less that are certified for a maximum of how many occupants?

    1. A. 2
    2. B. 6
    3. C. 4

  50. 50. According to the ML.A.502 table, may independent certifying staff overhaul a component other than an engine or propeller (e.g. a starter) for release at aircraft level?

    1. A. Yes, if the component is then fitted to the aircraft and released by CRS
    2. B. Yes, if the component manufacturer's data is used
    3. C. No, such overhaul is only possible by a component-rated organisation with an EASA Form 1

Answer key

  1. 1. C — Backups, kept separate and tested, let the organisation restore records after ransomware or hardware failure.
  2. 2. A — 145.A.35(c) requires all certifying and support staff to be involved in at least 6 months of actual relevant aircraft or component maintenance experience in any consecutive 2-year period.
  3. 3. C — CS-22 contains the airworthiness specifications for sailplanes and powered sailplanes. Certification specifications are issued by the Agency and form the certification basis for a type.
  4. 4. B — Article 2(g) of Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 defines a CAT operation as an aircraft operation to transport passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration. What counts is that the transport is paid for, not the size of the aircraft or whether there is a timetable.
  5. 5. B — M.A.305(g) requires entries to be clear and accurate; when a correction is needed it must be made in a way that clearly shows the original entry. This keeps records traceable.
  6. 6. C — 66.A.10(a) requires applications for a licence or change to a licence to be made on EASA Form 19 (Appendix V to Part-66) and submitted to the competent authority. EASA Form 1 is the authorised release certificate for components.
  7. 7. B — ICAO develops Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs), contained in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention. They are not directly applicable law: each Contracting State transposes them into its own regulations (in the EU, largely through the Basic Regulation and its implementing rules).
  8. 8. B — The Military Airworthiness Authorities (MAWA) Forum of the European Defence Agency, created in 2008, harmonises military airworthiness requirements among participating Member States. It produced EMAR 21, EMAR M, EMAR 145, EMAR 147 and EMAR 66.
  9. 9. B — ML.A.803(a): the pilot-owner must hold a valid pilot licence (or equivalent) issued or validated by a Member State for the type or class rating, and own the aircraft as sole or joint owner (a natural person on the registration form, or a designated member of a non-profit recreational entity).
  10. 10. B — Article 7a(3) empowers authorities to examine records, take copies, ask for oral explanations on-site, enter premises, perform audits, investigations, assessments and inspections including unannounced inspections, and take enforcement measures.
  11. 11. C — Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/1645 applies Part-IS to Part 21 design and production organisations and to aerodrome operators, from 16 October 2025. Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203 covers the other organisations, including Part-145, Part-CAMO and Part-147.
  12. 12. C — 145.A.48(c)(1) requires a general verification after maintenance to ensure the aircraft or component is clear of all tools, equipment and any extraneous parts or material, and that all removed access panels have been refitted.
  13. 13. A — Ferrying an aircraft to a place where maintenance or repair will be done is a typical purpose for a permit to fly under 21.A.701. The flight is carried out under approved flight conditions.
  14. 14. B — CAT.GEN.MPA.180(a)(5) requires a certified true copy of the AOC, including an English translation when it was issued in another language. The relevant operations specifications must also be carried.
  15. 15. A — ML.A.302(c)(9) requires the AMP to be reviewed at least annually, either with the airworthiness review by the person doing the review or by the managing CAMO or CAO. Deficiencies found lead to AMP amendment.
  16. 16. A — Appendix II 1.13: the maximum number of attempts for each examination is three in a 12-month period. The applicant must declare previous attempts in writing to the examining organisation or authority.
  17. 17. B — Article 3(2) applies Part-ML to non-complex aeroplanes of 2 730 kg MTOM or less, rotorcraft of 1 200 kg MTOM or less certified for up to 4 occupants, and other ELA2 aircraft — unless listed in the AOC of a licensed air carrier, in which case Part-M applies.
  18. 18. C — Article 2(4) brings such a type into scope when the design organisation has applied to the Agency for a type-certificate (or made a declaration), the type is intended for serial production, and its design was not previously approved under national law.
  19. 19. C — 66.A.50(a): limitations are exclusions from certification privileges and, for 66.A.45 limitations, affect the aircraft in its entirety. The limitation applies whether working independently or for an organisation, and is removed only by experience or a practical assessment (66.A.50(b)).
  20. 20. C — 145.B.350(d) requires the authority, if a level 1 finding directly relates to an aircraft, to inform the competent authority of the Member State in which the aircraft is registered so that it can act on that aircraft's airworthiness.
  21. 21. B — 145.A.30(h)(1)(i): B1 and B2 support staff ensure that all relevant tasks or inspections have been carried out to the required standard before the category C certifying staff issues the CRS. The C certifier assesses any work not done and agrees deferral with the operator.
  22. 22. C — The type design consists of drawings and specifications defining the configuration and design features, information on materials, processes and manufacturing and assembly methods, and the approved airworthiness limitations section of the ICA. Maintenance must respect those limitations.
  23. 23. C — Specific approvals, including ETOPS, low-visibility operations, RVSM and PBN, are in Part-SPA. Once granted, they appear in the operator's operations specifications.
  24. 24. B — Part-T covers the continuing airworthiness of aircraft registered in a third country and dry leased-in by an EU licensed air carrier. T.A.201 makes the operator responsible, with maintenance programmes meeting the State of registry and ICAO Annex 6, and records kept not less than 24 months.
  25. 25. C — 66.A.25(f) requires the holder applying for an additional category to complement by examination the knowledge appropriate to the related modules; Appendix IV details the modules required for each addition.
  26. 26. A — Annex IV (Part-147) sets out the requirements for organisations seeking approval to conduct training and examinations as specified in Part-66 (147.A.05). Article 6 requires such training organisations to be approved under Part-147.
  27. 27. A — Article 2(3)(d) excludes Annex I aircraft unless the aircraft has been issued, or deemed issued, a certificate under Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. Once certified under the EU system, it stays in it.
  28. 28. C — Part-M Appendix VIII (c) requires the pilot-owner to inform the approved continuing airworthiness management organisation responsible for the aircraft (if applicable) not later than 30 days after completing the pilot-owner maintenance task.
  29. 29. A — 145.B.305(c) states the oversight planning cycle shall not exceed 24 months. It can be extended to 36 or 48 months under strict conditions, or reduced if safety performance decreases.
  30. 30. A — 145.A.35(k) requires certifying staff to produce their certification authorisation to any authorised person within 24 hours. 'Authorised person' means officials of the competent authorities, the Agency and the responsible Member State (145.A.35(h)).
  31. 31. A — A Design Organisation Approval under Part 21 Subpart J shows that an organisation has a design assurance system. It may be granted privileges such as approving minor changes and minor repairs, or approving flight conditions for a permit to fly.
  32. 32. B — Article 2(p) of Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 defines 'limited operations', including cost-shared flights by private individuals where the direct cost is shared by all occupants and no more than six persons share it. Limited operations are not considered CAT or commercial specialised operations.
  33. 33. B — Article 3(2) applies Part-ML to other-than-complex aeroplanes of 2 730 kg MTOM or less, rotorcraft of 1 200 kg MTOM or less certified for up to 4 occupants, and other ELA2 aircraft. Other aircraft follow Part-M.
  34. 34. B — 66.A.3(c) states that the B2 licence is applicable to all aircraft; it is not divided into subcategories. By contrast, the B2L licence is applicable to all aircraft other than Group 1.
  35. 35. C — Article 3 of Regulation (EU) 2023/989 states that it applies from 12 June 2024 (with some provisions from 12 June 2023). Basic training courses begun before 12 June 2024 had to be finished, with examinations, before 12 June 2026 (1321/2014 Art. 6(4)).
  36. 36. B — Appendix VIII (b)(4) excludes tasks requiring special tools or calibrated tools, except a torque wrench and a crimping tool.
  37. 37. C — 145.A.40(b) requires tools, equipment and particularly test equipment to be controlled and calibrated to an officially recognised standard at a frequency ensuring serviceability and accuracy, with records of calibration and traceability kept.
  38. 38. C — Under Part 21 Subpart H, a standard CofA is issued on EASA Form 25, and a restricted CofA on EASA Form 24. They are issued by the competent authority of the Member State of registry.
  39. 39. A — CAT.GEN.MPA.180(b) allows certain documents, including the noise certificate, radio licence, journey log, technical log and mass and balance documentation, to be retained at the aerodrome for local day-VFR operations with other-than-complex aircraft. The CofA and certificate of registration are not in that list.
  40. 40. C — Article 3(4) states that the continuing airworthiness of aircraft with a permit to fly shall be ensured on the basis of the specific continuing airworthiness arrangements defined in the permit issued under Part 21.
  41. 41. B — 66.A.25(c): basic knowledge examinations shall have been passed within 10 years prior to the application for the licence or the addition of a category/subcategory. The 10-year validity applies to each individual module examination.
  42. 42. C — Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 establishes mandatory and voluntary occurrence reporting, analysis and follow-up, and the protection of reporters. 145.A.60 allows an organisation to use a single system meeting both 376/2014 and the Part-145 requirements.
  43. 43. A — ML.A.904(d): the authorisation remains valid for 5 years as long as the holder has performed at least 1 airworthiness review every 12 months. Otherwise a new AR must be performed satisfactorily under supervision of the competent authority.
  44. 44. B — 145.A.30(j) requires all such cases to be reported to the competent authority within seven days after issuing the authorisation, and any maintenance that could affect flight safety must be re-checked by an appropriately approved organisation.
  45. 45. A — Part 21 Subpart B sets out how an applicant obtains a type-certificate or restricted type-certificate, including the certification basis and demonstration of compliance. The TC defines the approved type design, operating limitations and TCDS.
  46. 46. C — Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace spans FL 290 to FL 410. Aircraft need a specific approval (SPA.RVSM) and their altimetry and height-keeping systems must be maintained to strict accuracy requirements.
  47. 47. B — CAMO.A.315(b)(4) requires, for complex motor-powered aircraft or air-carrier aircraft, a procedure to assess non-mandatory modifications and/or inspections (e.g. service bulletins) and decide on their application, using the safety risk management process.
  48. 48. A — 66.A.20(a)(7): category C permits the holder to issue CRS following base maintenance, and the privileges apply to the aircraft in its entirety. Category C on complex motor-powered aircraft includes category C privileges on other-than-complex aircraft.
  49. 49. C — Article 3(2)(b) and ML.1(a)(2) apply Part-ML to rotorcraft of 1 200 kg MTOM or less certified for a maximum of up to 4 occupants (and not listed in the AOC of a licensed air carrier).
  50. 50. C — The ML.A.502(b) table shows that overhaul of components other than engines and propellers can only be released on an EASA Form 1 by component-rated maintenance organisations; release at aircraft level is 'not possible'.

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