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Module 13 Aircraft aerodynamics, structures and systems (B2): 50 practice questions

Real EASA paper: B2 188 Q / 235 min · B2L 188 Q / 235 min. Three options, 75% to pass. Answer key on the last page. From part66exam.com · independent study aid, not an official exam or a past paper.

1. The ADC applies static source error correction to compensate for:
1. A. altimeter hysteresis after climbs
2. B. the effect of the Earth's rotation
3. C. pressure errors due to static port position
2. The propeller de-ice ammeter drops to a lower value during one part of the timer cycle. This indicates:
1. A. normal operation of the timer
2. B. an open element or brush fault in that section
3. C. a short circuit giving high current
3. In a fly-by-wire aircraft with a sidestick, control 'feel' is provided by:
1. A. springs and dampers in the sidestick unit
2. B. aerodynamic forces fed back from the surfaces
3. C. the trim tab on each surface
4. A hydraulic system overheat warning usually indicates:
1. A. a high reservoir fluid level
2. B. low nitrogen precharge in the accumulator
3. C. excessive fluid temperature at a pump or reservoir
5. The GPS L5 signal (1176.45 MHz) is useful for aviation mainly because, together with L1, it:
1. A. replaces the need for accurate satellite clocks
2. B. lets the receiver measure and remove ionospheric delay
3. C. provides a voice channel between aircraft and ATC
6. Flight deck 'flood' lighting differs from integral panel lighting because flood lights:
1. A. are built into each instrument face
2. B. come on only after an emergency landing
3. C. light the panels from outside, from above
7. The engine low-pressure fuel shut-off (spar) valve on a transport aircraft is usually operated by:
1. A. a hydraulic actuator
2. B. a push-pull cable only
3. C. an electric motor actuator
8. A four-axis helicopter AFCS adds control of the:
1. A. collective
2. B. tail rotor gearbox
3. C. engine starter
9. Before towing an aircraft with hydraulic nose wheel steering, the technician normally:
1. A. applies the parking brake
2. B. pressurises the hydraulic system
3. C. inserts the steering bypass pin
10. A high-pressure ground air cart is connected to the aircraft's:
1. A. pneumatic manifold through a ground connector with a check valve
2. B. low-pressure mix manifold of the conditioning system
3. C. fuel tank vent system through a check valve
11. An electronic library system on board is used to:
1. A. control the in-flight entertainment content
2. B. record fault codes from the engines
3. C. store and display manuals and documents electronically
12. Functions that may be hosted in IMA modules include:
1. A. only the in-flight entertainment
2. B. bleed, fuel and brake temperature functions
3. C. only the standby magnetic compass
13. A static inverter used for emergency AC usually delivers:
1. A. three-phase 200 V AC, 50 Hz
2. B. 28 V DC to the battery bus
3. C. single-phase 115 V AC, 400 Hz
14. A passenger cabin information system may provide passengers with:
1. A. control of the cabin pressurisation
2. B. access to the flight deck door
3. C. flight information such as moving maps
15. Chemical oxygen generators are started by:
1. A. an electric current from the cabin bus
2. B. pulling the mask, which fires a firing pin
3. C. cabin pressure loss acting on a diaphragm
16. The position of a bleed air valve shown on the synoptic page is normally sensed by:
1. A. a pressure transducer downstream
2. B. the pack outlet temperature
3. C. position switches on the valve
17. Lift dumpers reduce the landing roll mainly by:
1. A. increasing lift for a softer touchdown
2. B. reversing the airflow through the engines
3. C. putting the aircraft's weight onto the wheels for braking
18. When a wing bends upward under flight loads, the upper wing skin is mainly in:
1. A. compression
2. B. tension
3. C. torsion only
19. The vacuum toilet system on the ground uses:
1. A. cabin pressure differential only
2. B. a vacuum generator (blower)
3. C. a venturi on the fuselage
20. A cabin monitoring system (CMS) may include:
1. A. sensors measuring engine vibration levels
2. B. cameras at the cabin and flight deck door
3. C. the radio altimeter transceivers
21. Infrared optical flame detectors used on some turboprop and helicopter engines are designed to ignore sunlight and lamps by:
1. A. responding only to visible red light
2. B. filtering a narrow IR band and checking flicker
3. C. measuring air temperature near the sensor
22. Emergency light batteries in the emergency power supply units are normally charged:
1. A. from the aircraft DC bus during normal operation
2. B. by the ELT battery when not in use
3. C. only on the ground from an external charger
23. A maximum allowable airspeed (VMO/MMO) pointer, or 'barber's pole', on a jet ASI:
1. A. remains fixed at VNE at all altitudes
2. B. shows the minimum manoeuvring speed for flaps
3. C. moves to show the lower of VMO and MMO
24. Engine intake cowl anti-icing is normally supplied by:
1. A. the air conditioning packs
2. B. the aircraft battery
3. C. bleed air from the same engine
25. A stick shaker is triggered and the aircraft continues to slow. On aircraft fitted with a stick pusher, the pusher acts:
1. A. at the same moment as the shaker
2. B. only after the stall has fully developed
3. C. at a higher angle of attack than the shaker
26. Instead of bleed air, a bootstrap hydraulic reservoir is kept pressurised by:
1. A. bleed air through a regulator
2. B. nitrogen from an external bottle only
3. C. system pressure acting on a small-area piston
27. If the GNSS position input to an ADS-B OUT transmitter is lost, the ADS-B messages will:
1. A. indicate that position is invalid or unavailable
2. B. continue with the last position indefinitely
3. C. switch automatically to radar-derived position
28. Runway turn-off lights are used to:
1. A. signal ground crew to remove the chocks
2. B. light the ground to the side of the aircraft during turns
3. C. indicate the aircraft is about to take off
29. A 'HIGH LEVEL' light illuminates for one tank during refuelling. This shows that:
1. A. the tank vent line is blocked by ice or debris
2. B. the tank is empty and ready for fuel
3. C. its high-level sensor is wet and the valve has closed
30. If the gain of an autopilot control channel is set too high, the likely result is:
1. A. a slow, sluggish response to errors
2. B. oscillation or hunting about the target
3. C. a permanent standing error
31. A failed-open (stuck 'air') air–ground sensor after landing could prevent:
1. A. the nose gear from extending for landing
2. B. the APU from being shut down after landing
3. C. ground spoiler deployment and reverse thrust
32. Users of the pneumatic system on transport aircraft include:
1. A. only the landing gear retraction jacks
2. B. only the passenger oxygen masks
3. C. packs, engine start and anti-ice
33. In a central maintenance system, 'flight deck effects' (FDEs) are:
1. A. the physical damage found on the flight deck
2. B. the effects of weather on displays
3. C. crew alerts or indications caused by a fault
34. A virtual link in AFDX is:
1. A. a logical one-way path with guaranteed bandwidth
2. B. a physical wire between two modules
3. C. a wireless connection to the ground
35. An aircraft electrical load analysis is used to show that:
1. A. sources can supply the loads in every condition
2. B. every wire in the aircraft is the same size
3. C. the aircraft battery never needs recharging
36. An EFB application that calculates take-off performance is classed by EASA as:
1. A. Type A
2. B. Type B
3. C. not an EFB function at all
37. Protective breathing equipment (PBE, smoke hood) for cabin crew provides:
1. A. unlimited filtered air from the cabin
2. B. cooling air for fighting cabin fires
3. C. oxygen and smoke protection for a limited time
38. In MANUAL mode of a pressurisation system, the crew controls cabin pressure by:
1. A. positioning the outflow valve directly
2. B. opening the safety valves
3. C. adjusting the air conditioning temperature
39. Elevons are control surfaces that combine the functions of:
1. A. flaps and ailerons
2. B. ailerons and elevators
3. C. rudder and elevators
40. Lightning diverter strips on a radome:
1. A. stop radar energy leaving the radome
2. B. heat the radome to prevent ice
3. C. carry strike current to the fuselage
41. Potable water quantity is normally displayed on the:
1. A. captain's primary flight display
2. B. weather radar and navigation display
3. C. flight attendant panel and service panel
42. In-flight entertainment equipment is often switched off automatically or by a crew switch when:
1. A. the aircraft enters cruise
2. B. electrical load shedding is required
3. C. the seat belt signs are switched off
43. A red disc missing from the side of a fuselage near an extinguisher bottle indicates:
1. A. normal discharge by the crew
2. B. that the bottle is fully charged
3. C. thermal discharge due to overheat
44. Life jackets carried for over-water flights must be fitted with:
1. A. a survivor locator light
2. B. a small VHF transceiver
3. C. a personal 406 MHz ELT
45. On many transport aircraft, the flight deck clock receives UTC time from:
1. A. replies from the ATC transponder
2. B. the VOR station identification
3. C. the GNSS receiver, then passes it on
46. Pneumatic de-icing boots are inflated in a set sequence mainly to:
1. A. make ice form evenly along the leading edge
2. B. limit air demand and avoid large trim changes
3. C. reduce cabin noise during each boot cycle
47. A bellcrank in a flight control linkage is used to:
1. A. change the direction of rod motion
2. B. store energy for emergency use
3. C. measure control surface position
48. A hydraulic accumulator stores energy by:
1. A. raising a weight against a spring
2. B. heating the hydraulic fluid inside it
3. C. compressing a gas precharge
49. Long-range HF communication beyond the horizon is possible because HF waves:
1. A. are relayed by geostationary satellites
2. B. are refracted back to Earth by the ionosphere
3. C. follow the Earth's curvature as ground waves
50. LED lights are increasingly used for aircraft exterior lighting because they:
1. A. last longer and use less power than incandescent lamps
2. B. are brighter because they operate on 115 V
3. C. do not need any circuit protection

Answer key

1. C — The static pressure at the port differs from true ambient depending on speed, Mach and configuration. SSEC corrects this.
2. B — Each step of the timer powers a known set of heater elements, so the ammeter should show a steady current. A lower reading during one step shows lost continuity in that circuit.
3. A — There is no mechanical path from surfaces to the stick, so feel is artificial. Passive sidesticks use springs and dampers; active sidesticks use motors to generate forces and link the two pilots' sticks electronically.
4. C — Temperature sensors in pump case drain lines or reservoirs trigger an overheat warning, often due to pump wear, low fluid or heat exchanger problems. The affected pump is normally switched off.
5. B — Ionospheric delay depends on frequency, so comparing ranges on two frequencies lets the receiver calculate and remove it. L5 is in a protected aeronautical band suitable for safety-of-life use.
6. C — Integral lighting is built into instruments and panels. Flood lights shine onto the panels from above or the glare shield, giving general illumination.
7. C — The LP valve is a motor-operated valve driven from the engine master or fuel control switch and from the fire handle. Position switches provide valve indications.
8. A — Three-axis systems control pitch, roll and yaw. A fourth axis adds collective control for altitude or speed holds.
9. C — The bypass (towing) pin depressurises the steering actuator so the nose wheel can turn freely with the tow bar, preventing damage. The parking brake must be released during towing.
10. A — The HP ground connection feeds the pneumatic manifold for engine start and pack operation. A check valve prevents back-flow.
11. C — The electronic library (or electronic flight bag functions) replaces paper manuals, charts and procedures with digital documents, retrievable on flight deck or maintenance terminals.
12. B — The AMC lists examples such as bleed and pressure control, ventilation, electrical load management, circuit breaker monitoring, fuel management, braking and steering control, gear extension and tyre, oleo and brake temperature indication.
13. C — Static inverters supply essential single-phase AC loads, such as instruments, from the battery.
14. C — Passenger information systems show moving maps, flight progress, destination information and announcements.
15. B — Once started, the sodium chlorate reaction cannot be stopped and the generator becomes very hot.
16. C — Valves carry position (limit) switches or position sensors that report open, closed or in transit. Downstream pressure is shown separately, but valve position is taken directly from the valve.
17. C — Destroying wing lift transfers weight to the wheels, so the brakes become effective sooner. They also add aerodynamic drag.
18. A — Upward bending shortens the upper surface and stretches the lower surface. The upper skin and spar caps are therefore in compression and the lower skin in tension.
19. B — Below a certain altitude the vacuum blower provides the differential. Below a set altitude, cabin pressure is too low to move the waste, so an electric blower creates the vacuum.
20. B — Cabin video monitoring allows the flight crew to identify persons requesting flight deck entry and observe cabin areas.
21. B — The detector filters a narrow IR band (around 4.3 µm) typical of hydrocarbon flames. Its electronics check the signal's time pattern, rejecting steady sources such as sunlight or lamps.
22. A — The emergency power supply units trickle-charge their internal batteries from aircraft power in normal operation, and a charging or fault indicator may be provided. Batteries are checked and replaced per the maintenance programme.
23. C — Above a certain altitude MMO becomes the limit, and because the IAS corresponding to MMO decreases with altitude, the pointer moves. The pointer is driven by an altitude capsule or the air data computer.
24. C — Nacelle anti-ice uses hot bleed air from the engine compressor, controlled by a valve, to heat the intake lip. Ice ingested from the lip could damage the fan or compressor.
25. C — The shaker warns first. If AoA keeps increasing, the pusher applies a nose-down force to prevent the aircraft reaching the stall.
26. C — A small piston exposed to system pressure pushes a larger piston on the fluid, so the reservoir is kept pressurised without bleed air.
27. A — ADS-B depends on the aircraft's navigation source. Without valid position, the transmitted quality indicators (NIC/NACp) show that position is unavailable, and the crew is alerted to an ADS-B fault. The Mode S transponder still replies to radar.
28. B — Runway turn-off lights (often in the wing root or nose gear) illuminate the area ahead and to the side so the crew can see taxiway exits and edges during turns at night.
29. C — The high-level light indicates that the sensor is immersed. The control unit has closed that tank's refuel valve to prevent overflow.
30. B — High gain makes the system over-correct, so it overshoots and oscillates. Too low a gain gives sluggish response and may leave a standing error.
31. C — Ground-only functions need valid ground signals. A sensor stuck in air mode can inhibit spoilers, reversers and cabin depressurisation.
32. C — Pneumatic air supplies air conditioning, wing and engine anti-ice, engine starters, hydraulic reservoir pressurisation, air-driven pumps and water tank pressurisation.
33. C — FDEs are what the crew sees: EICAS/ECAM messages, flags or lights. The CMC links fault messages to the related FDEs so maintenance can match crew reports with the stored faults.
34. A — Virtual links define logical unidirectional connections from one source to one or more destinations, each with a bandwidth allocation gap, giving deterministic timing.
35. A — The load analysis totals connected loads for each phase of flight and failure case and compares them with generator, TRU and battery capacity. It is updated when equipment is added.
36. B — Performance and mass and balance calculations can have a minor safety effect if wrong, so they are Type B applications that require evaluation before use.
37. C — PBE is a hood with its own oxygen source (chemical or bottle), letting crew fight a fire in smoke-filled areas for a limited time.
38. A — Manual mode lets the crew drive the outflow valve motor open or closed while monitoring cabin altitude, rate and differential pressure, if the automatic controllers fail.
39. B — Elevons are found on tailless or delta-wing aircraft. When moved together they act as elevators for pitch; when moved differentially they act as ailerons for roll.
40. C — The strips give a conductive path so the strike current flows to the structure instead of puncturing the radome. They are spaced to let radar energy pass.
41. C — Cabin crew monitor water quantity on the flight attendant panel, and servicing staff use the service panel.
42. B — IFE and in-seat power are non-essential loads. They are shed during generator failures or electrical emergencies, and can be switched off by the crew.
43. C — The red disc blows out if a bottle discharges overboard due to high temperature (thermal relief). A yellow disc indicates normal (crew-commanded) discharge. Both should be intact on a charged bottle.
44. A — Life preservers are required to have an approved survivor locator light (typically water-activated) to help rescuers find survivors at night. Survival ELTs are carried in life rafts.
45. C — GPS time is very accurate, so the clock is often synchronised to it. The clock then provides time and date to the FMS, recorders and ACARS.
46. B — Inflating groups in turn reduces the airflow needed and avoids sudden pitch changes from shedding ice on all surfaces together.
47. A — A bellcrank pivots so that input from one rod is transferred to another at a different angle, and can also change the mechanical advantage.
48. C — Accumulators have a precharge (normally nitrogen) on one side of a piston, bladder or diaphragm. System fluid compresses the gas; the stored energy smooths pressure surges, supplies peak demands and provides emergency power.
49. B — HF sky waves are refracted by the ionised layers of the upper atmosphere and return to Earth far from the transmitter, possibly after several hops. This allows oceanic communication without satellites.
50. A — LEDs have a long life, low power consumption, low heat and high reliability, and can reduce maintenance. They still need power supplies, drivers and protection.

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