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Module 11A Turbine aeroplane aerodynamics, structures and systems: 50 practice questions

Real EASA paper: Category A 108 Q / 135 min · B1.1 140 Q / 175 min. Three options, 75% to pass. Answer key on the last page. From part66exam.com · independent study aid, not an official exam or a past paper.

1. Before charging an oxygen cylinder, the technician must allow for temperature because:
1. A. oxygen freezes at room temperature
2. B. colder cylinders always hold less gas
3. C. gas pressure rises as the gas warms
2. During a duplicate inspection, the technician moves the control wheel to the right. The correct surface response is:
1. A. right aileron down, left aileron up
2. B. right aileron up, left aileron down
3. C. both ailerons down
3. Wing stations (WS) on most aircraft are measured:
1. A. outboard from the centre line or a wing reference line
2. B. vertically upward from the cabin floor level
3. C. forward from the wing rear spar, along the chord
4. A trimmable horizontal stabiliser is attached to the rear fuselage by:
1. A. fixed bolts at both the front and rear spars
2. B. rear-spar pivots and a front-spar jackscrew
3. C. the elevator hinge brackets and actuators only
5. Heated drain masts and water lines are provided to:
1. A. increase water pressure in the galley
2. B. provide heating for the rear cabin
3. C. stop waste and water lines freezing
6. Emergency brakes on many transport aircraft are powered by:
1. A. the rudder pedals alone, with no hydraulics
2. B. a brake accumulator or alternate hydraulic system
3. C. the engine thrust reversers
7. Why must pneumatic ducts be checked for insulation damage?
1. A. Insulation increases the airflow
2. B. Insulation prevents icing of the ducts
3. C. Hot ducts can damage nearby items
8. The cabin intercommunication data system (CIDS) controls functions such as:
1. A. engine start and fuel control
2. B. flight control laws and protections
3. C. PA, interphone, lights and signs
9. Vortex generators are often seen near the ailerons of jet aircraft because they:
1. A. keep flow attached over them at high Mach
2. B. mass-balance the ailerons in flight
3. C. act as static dischargers for the wing
10. In a typical twin-engine jet, each engine is normally fed from:
1. A. the centre tank only, all the time
2. B. its own main tank, crossfeed closed
3. C. the vent surge tank at the tip
11. A door-mounted escape slide must be automatically deployed and erected within about:
1. A. 90 seconds
2. B. 30 seconds
3. C. 6 seconds
12. A ring laser gyro detects rotation by:
1. A. sensing the precession of a spinning rotor
2. B. comparing the frequencies of two opposed beams
3. C. using a pendulous erection mechanism
13. A continuous-loop fire detector gives a false fire warning after heavy rain. A likely cause is:
1. A. a correctly working element
2. B. a low fire bottle pressure
3. C. moisture in a loop connector
14. To make the cabin altitude climb (cabin pressure decrease), the outflow valve must:
1. A. open further
2. B. close further
3. C. stay in its current position
15. Software updates on information systems are recorded so that:
1. A. the aircraft configuration is known
2. B. the server performance improves
3. C. cabin crew can use the new version
16. Remote data concentrators (RDCs) in an IMA architecture:
1. A. generate electrical power for the modules
2. B. convert sensor signals to network data
3. C. store the navigation database
17. A constant displacement pump requires a device to:
1. A. regulate the engine gearbox speed
2. B. unload the flow when pressure is reached
3. C. sense any change in the fluid colour
18. Passenger reading lights and call lights are part of the:
1. A. emergency lighting system
2. B. anti-collision system
3. C. passenger service units (PSUs)
19. A potable water quantity indicator reads zero after filling. A likely cause is:
1. A. the tank being overfilled with water
2. B. a faulty quantity transmitter
3. C. a high cabin altitude on the ground
20. Structural health monitoring can reduce maintenance cost mainly by:
1. A. strengthening the structure with sensors
2. B. monitoring hidden areas without opening them
3. C. removing the need for any structural inspection
21. Battery 'deep cycling' of a NiCd battery during workshop servicing is done to:
1. A. remove the old electrolyte
2. B. raise its nominal voltage per cell
3. C. equalise cells and restore capacity
22. Why are oxygen fittings never lubricated with ordinary grease?
1. A. Grease can ignite in pure oxygen
2. B. Grease blocks the oxygen flow at valves
3. C. Grease freezes solid at high altitude
23. A stall protection system in an FBW aircraft (alpha protection) typically:
1. A. limits AOA even with full back stick
2. B. extends the landing gear automatically
3. C. shuts down one engine to reduce thrust
24. Wing angle of incidence is checked with:
1. A. an incidence board and level at specified positions
2. B. a protractor placed on the aileron trailing edge
3. C. a plumb bob hung from the wingtip
25. Aileron hinge fittings on a transport wing are attached to:
1. A. the leading-edge slat tracks
2. B. the wing lower skin between ribs
3. C. the wing rear spar or a false spar
26. Wing anti-ice valves are commonly tested on the ground by:
1. A. running the system continuously for an hour
2. B. a short test that checks valve opening and indication
3. C. spraying water on the leading edges
27. A tyre that has run flat or been over-deflected under load should be:
1. A. re-inflated and then used normally
2. B. removed, along with its mate
3. C. rotated to the other side of the axle
28. A bleed monitoring computer (BMC) in a pneumatic system:
1. A. controls the fuel flow to the engine
2. B. measures cabin altitude for the outflow valve
3. C. controls and monitors the bleed valves
29. Cabin system faults are typically shown on:
1. A. the engine and warning display
2. B. the central warning panel only
3. C. the cabin management panel
30. The local speed of sound in the atmosphere depends only on:
1. A. air pressure
2. B. air temperature
3. C. air density
31. A fuel jettison (dump) system is installed to:
1. A. reduce weight quickly to landing weight
2. B. remove water from the wing tanks in flight
3. C. transfer fuel to the tail trim tank
32. Seat belt and harness inspection includes checking for:
1. A. the colour of the belt matching the seat cover
2. B. fraying, buckle operation and labels
3. C. the total weight of the belt assembly
33. Gyroscopic rigidity increases with:
1. A. lower rotor speed and a smaller rotor
2. B. greater rotor mass and higher speed
3. C. a lighter rotor with mass near the hub
34. During a fire detection system test, one loop fails to give a test indication. This most likely shows:
1. A. a real fire in that fire zone
2. B. a fault in that loop
3. C. that the zone fire bottle is empty
35. A low-pressure (LP) ground air connection supplies:
1. A. high-pressure air for engine starting
2. B. conditioned air straight to the ducts
3. C. air to charge the hydraulic reservoirs
36. A laptop connected to information systems must be:
1. A. connected through the passenger network
2. B. authorised and malware-free
3. C. used with any company USB stick
37. Network switches in an AFDX system:
1. A. convert AC to DC for the network
2. B. route data frames on virtual links
3. C. control the flight surfaces directly
38. Hydraulic system reservoirs are usually fitted with a quantity transmitter so that:
1. A. the hydraulic pumps can run faster
2. B. the fuel quantity can be calculated
3. C. quantity is shown and low levels warned
39. The emergency lighting control on the flight deck is normally set to:
1. A. OFF for flight to save batteries
2. B. ARMED for flight
3. C. ON for the whole flight
40. The flush valve in a vacuum toilet opens to:
1. A. connect the bowl to the waste line
2. B. drain rinse water into the potable tank
3. C. vent the waste tank to the cabin
41. A maintenance message code displayed by the CMC is used to:
1. A. reset the faulty LRU
2. B. find the fault isolation task
3. C. order spare parts automatically from stores
42. A frequency meter on an AC generator reads 380 Hz. The likely fault is:
1. A. a CSD underspeed problem
2. B. a failed voltage regulator
3. C. a shorted battery cell
43. Continuous-flow passenger masks include a reservoir bag that:
1. A. inflates to show the cabin is pressurised
2. B. stores oxygen during exhalation
3. C. traps exhaled carbon dioxide
44. In an FBW system, pilot input data and surface commands are transmitted on:
1. A. a single shielded analogue wire
2. B. pressurised hydraulic signal lines
3. C. redundant digital data buses
45. A structure described as a 'sandwich' consists of:
1. A. two layers of fabric with dope
2. B. solid metal plates riveted together
3. C. thin face sheets bonded to a lightweight core
46. Cabin windows in a pressurised fuselage have rounded corners in order to:
1. A. reduce stress concentration in the skin
2. B. make the windows easier to clean
3. C. improve the view for passengers
47. Pneumatic rain removal systems use air from:
1. A. the cabin outflow valve
2. B. the hydraulic accumulator
3. C. the engine bleed system
48. A landing gear lever lock (solenoid) prevents:
1. A. extending the gear in normal flight
2. B. selecting gear up while on the ground
3. C. lowering the gear above a set airspeed
49. Potable water tank pressurisation from the pneumatic system is usually:
1. A. supplied at full bleed pressure
2. B. regulated to a low pressure
3. C. taken from the hydraulic system
50. A cabin network server (CNS) typically hosts:
1. A. primary flight display software
2. B. the flight control computers' software
3. C. email, reports and IFE data

Answer key

1. C — Filling heats the gas, so the pressure read immediately is higher than when cool. Charts give the correct fill pressure for the ambient temperature. Filling slowly reduces heating.
2. B — Turning right must roll the aircraft right, so the right wing's lift must fall (aileron up) and the left wing's rise (aileron down). Checking the sense of movement is a key part of any flight control independent inspection.
3. A — Wing stations are spanwise locations. They are usually measured outboard from the fuselage centre line (the butt line zero) or from a defined wing root reference, and are used to locate wing ribs and fittings.
4. B — The stabiliser pivots about hinge fittings near the rear spar. Its leading edge is moved up and down by a jackscrew (ballscrew) actuator attached near the front spar, which changes its angle of incidence for pitch trim.
5. C — Drain masts discharge grey water overboard. Heaters stop the water freezing in the mast and lines, which would block drainage or damage the lines.
6. B — If normal brake pressure is lost, an alternate hydraulic system or a nitrogen-charged brake accumulator supplies pressure for a limited number of applications.
7. C — Insulation protects surrounding items from duct heat and helps leak detection. Damaged insulation must be repaired.
8. C — CIDS is a digital system linking the flight deck and cabin crew with cabin functions: PA, interphone, passenger call, cabin lighting, signs (seat belt/no smoking), lavatory smoke indication and evacuation signalling.
9. A — At high Mach numbers shock-induced separation can reduce aileron effectiveness. Vortex generators mix energy into the boundary layer ahead of the aileron.
10. B — Normally each engine draws from its own side, with the crossfeed valve closed, keeping the systems independent. Centre tank fuel is often used first via its own pumps.
11. C — CS 25.810 requires the slide to be erected within 6 seconds after deployment begins. This keeps the evacuation within the 90-second demonstration limit.
12. B — Two laser beams travel in opposite directions around a closed path. When the unit rotates, one path appears longer, causing a frequency difference (Sagnac effect). This is measured to give rotation rate with no moving parts.
13. C — Water in connectors or damaged elements can reduce resistance and trigger false warnings. Connectors are inspected, dried and resealed.
14. A — With a constant inflow, opening the outflow valve lets more air escape so cabin pressure falls and cabin altitude rises. Closing it keeps more air in and lowers cabin altitude.
15. A — Traceability supports airworthiness. Traceable records show which software is installed, supporting airworthiness.
16. B — RDCs (or remote interface units) are placed near sensors and actuators. They convert analogue and discrete signals into digital data on the network, reducing wiring weight.
17. B — A constant displacement pump always delivers the same volume per revolution. A pressure regulator or unloading valve diverts flow to return when system pressure is reached, so the pump works at low pressure.
18. C — The PSU above each seat row includes reading lights, attendant call button, gasper outlets, signs and often oxygen masks and generators.
19. B — If the tank has been filled (overflow seen) but the indication is zero, the fault is in the sensing system.
20. B — Sensors fixed to hard-to-reach areas can be read from a connector. This avoids removing panels or interiors for routine checks. Inspections are still required when a sensor shows damage.
21. C — Deep cycling discharges cells fully (often shorting each with a resistor) and recharges them. This removes cell imbalance and memory effects, restoring capacity.
22. A — Only approved oxygen-compatible lubricants and tapes may be used. Hydrocarbons can ignite violently in high-pressure oxygen.
23. A — Alpha protection prevents the aircraft exceeding a maximum angle of attack in normal law, so the wing cannot be stalled by pilot input.
24. A — An incidence board is placed at a specified position under the wing (or on specified points) and a level used to measure the angle between the wing chord and the aircraft's longitudinal datum. It confirms the wing has not twisted.
25. C — Ailerons are hung from hinge fittings attached to the rear spar or an auxiliary (false) spar. These fittings carry aileron hinge loads into the wing box.
26. B — Ground tests open the valves briefly to check operation and indication, then close them before overheating can occur.
27. B — Running flat damages the carcass internally. Both the failed tyre and its mate, which carried extra load, are removed from service.
28. C — The BMC receives pressure, temperature and valve position signals. It controls bleed valves, detects leaks and overheats, and sends warnings to the crew.
29. C — Built-in test reports cabin faults to the panel for maintenance action.
30. B — The speed of sound is a = √(γRT), so it varies only with absolute temperature. It is about 661 kt (340 m/s) at ISA sea level, 15 °C, and falls with altitude up to the tropopause as the temperature falls.
31. A — If the maximum take-off weight is much more than the maximum landing weight, a jettison system lets the crew dump fuel in an emergency. Fuel is pumped to nozzles at the wingtips and discharged clear of the airframe.
32. B — Restraints are inspected for webbing damage, fraying, contamination, buckle function and label legibility. Damaged belts must be replaced with approved parts.
33. B — Rigidity depends on the rotor's angular momentum. A heavy rotor with its mass concentrated at the rim, spinning at high speed, gives the greatest rigidity.
34. B — The test checks the continuity of each loop and its control unit. A failed test on one loop means that loop or its wiring is faulty. It must be found and repaired before dispatch, or deferred per the MEL.
35. B — The LP connection takes conditioned air from a ground unit. It enters the mix manifold, so the packs need not run. The HP connection is used for engine starting and pack operation.
36. B — Device control protects the aircraft. Only authorised, protected devices may connect to aircraft networks.
37. B — Switches forward frames according to configuration tables for each virtual link, enforcing bandwidth limits and filtering. End systems are the network interfaces of each module or LRU.
38. C — A float or sensor transmits quantity to the flight deck. Low quantity indicates leaks.
39. B — In ARMED, emergency lights come on automatically if normal power fails. ON lights them immediately. They can also be switched on from the cabin crew station.
40. A — On flushing, rinse water sprays the bowl and the flush valve opens for a short time to let the differential pressure pull waste to the tank.
41. B — Each maintenance message has a code. The code leads to a fault isolation (troubleshooting) task that tells the technician how to confirm and fix the fault.
42. A — Frequency depends on drive speed. Low frequency with a fixed-frequency system indicates the CSD is not maintaining speed. The GCU will trip the generator if limits are exceeded.
43. B — Oxygen flows continuously, even while the passenger breathes out. The bag stores this oxygen, so it is available for the next inhalation, making better use of the supply. The bag may not visibly inflate even when oxygen is flowing.
44. C — FBW systems use several independent digital buses and wiring routes, separated physically to reduce the chance that a single event damages all channels.
45. C — Sandwich construction uses strong skins separated by a core (honeycomb or foam), giving high bending stiffness for low weight.
46. A — Sharp corners concentrate stress. Under repeated pressurisation cycles this can start fatigue cracks. Window cut-outs have large radius corners and reinforced frames (doublers or forgings) to spread the load.
47. C — Bleed air is blown across the windscreen through nozzles, forming an air curtain and evaporating water.
48. B — The squat switch or air-ground system de-energises a solenoid that locks the gear lever in the down position on the ground. An override is provided for emergencies.
49. B — Water systems need only a few psi. Pneumatic supply is regulated, or a small electric compressor used.
50. C — The CNS is a server in the cabin domain hosting applications such as crew email and internet, passenger databases, IFE content, external communications and the cabin monitoring system.

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